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A 45-year-old white female presents to your outpatient office with complaints of abdominal pain. Your office is equipped to perform routine laboratory testing and radiographic studies as well as flexible sigmoidoscopy. Your patient sees you yearly for her gynecologic exam but does not regularly visit for any other reason. She has three healthy children delivered by cesarean section but no other surgery. She has a history of seasonal allergies for which she takes an over-the-counter anti-histamine with good relief. She takes no other medications. Meperidine (Demerol) caused her to break out in a rash, her only medication allergy. She is physically active, running two or three miles every other day. Her father is alive and well despite suffering a myocardial infarction at age 62. Her mother died from colon cancer at age 60. She has two sisters who are alive and well, ages 40 and 47. |
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Your
patient explains that her pain began about 3 weeks prior to her
presentation and has gradually worsened.
The pain is sharp in nature and located in the middle of her upper
abdomen, just below her rib cage. It
occurs most often between meals and is relieved with meals only to recur
several hours later. She
denies any weight loss, anorexia, dysphagia, diarrhea or constipation.
Her stools are a bit darker than usual but without any signs of
bright red blood. She has
never had pain like this in the past, is uncertain as to its cause, and
has been using some over the counter antacid without relief. Her
last menstrual period was 3 weeks prior to her presentation and was of the
usual timing (q 28 days) and duration (5 days). Her abdominal pain did not worsen during the time of her
menses. She does not consider
her periods heavy. She uses
condoms and spermicidal lubricant for birth control.
She is sexually active with her boyfriend of the last 6 months,
with whom she feels safe and supported; she has no history of domestic
violence. She has never
contracted a sexually transmitted disease. She
has smoked one pack of cigarettes a day for 25 years, rarely drinks
alcoholic beverages, and uses no other substances.
She uses no aspirin or nonsteroidal products. She
works as a legal secretary for a large law firm. Her oldest child, a son, is away at college; her two youngest
children are at home including a 12 year old daughter recently diagnosed
with a learning disability. She
had all of her children by her former husband from whom she’s been
divorced for three years. She
reports some stress related to being a single parent and sharing custody
but does not believe that this is the cause of her abdominal pain. |
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On physical examination: She
is a well-appearing thin white female, appearing her stated age.
Her weight is 120 pounds, unchanged from her previous visit six
months before. Her blood
pressure is 110/67mmHg supine and 105/60mmHg standing.
Her heart rate is 68/min supine and 72/min standing.
Respiratory rate is 12. Temperature
is 98.8°F. Her conjunctiva are pale,
sclera are anicteric, mucus membranes are moist. There are no oral lesions.
Neck is without bruits or thyromegaly.
Lungs are clear to auscultation and percussion.
Heart is regular without murmurs, rubs, or gallops.
Abdomen is soft, non-distended with normoactive bowel sounds.
There is epigastric tenderness to palpation without rebound or
guarding. Murphy’s sign is
negative and there is no organomegaly.
Stool is dark brown and tests guiac positive for occult blood.
Deep tendon reflexes are 2+ and equal.
Skin is without lesions.
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Testing
reveals infection with H pylori.
Her duodenal biopsy is negative for malignancy.
You treat your patient with an appropriate regimen of antibiotics
and a proton-pump inhibitor. At
her follow-up appointment 3 weeks later she feels remarkably better.
Her epigastric pain has resolved and her stools now are guiac
negative. You advise her to
continue taking her proton-pump inhibitor for an additional 3 weeks. Despite having the apparent source of her previous heme +
stool, it would be reasonable to recommend colonoscopy at this point given
the patient’s age and family history. One
year later your patient returns complaining of abdominal pain.
This pain is very different from her initial abdominal pain one
year ago. Now her pain is
sharp and stabbing, though still located in the mid-epigastrium.
The pain occurs about 45 minutes after eating and lasts less than
an hour. The pain
occasionally radiates over her right shoulder. She notes the pain is the worst after her favorite meal,
pizza. |
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Diagnostic Work-up
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Your
patient undergoes elective laparascopic cholecystectomy without
complications. Her biliary
symptoms do not recur. She returns to the office two years later, having had normal interval gynecologic exams, again with complaints of abdominal pain. Now her pain is intermittent and accompanied by bouts of diarrhea. Between bouts of pain with diarrhea (which predominate) she is constipated with small hard stools. She describes the pain as crampy without localization. She has not lost or gained weight but constantly feels bloated. Dairy products and caffeine exacerbate her diarrheal symptoms. Her diet includes limited fiber intake. She remains with the same partner, they are considering marriage and this is the source of some friction between her and her youngest child, now a sophomore in high school.
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Colonoscopy reveals two sigmoid polyps which are benign—follow up colonoscopy is recommended in three years. You discuss in detail dietary interventions for IBS such as keeping a food diary to discover any associations of symptoms with specific dietary intake. You recommend increased fiber intake for her diarrheal-predominant symptoms. You explore with her methods of easing her anxiety. Your patient wonders if there is any medication that may help. |
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